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The Best Cisco ICND2 200-105 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (11-30)
QUESTION 11
Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)
A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.
B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.
C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.
D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.
E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.
F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation/Reference:
Convergence Cisco enhanced the original 802.1D specification with features such as Uplink Fast.
QUESTION 12
What can be done to Frame Relay to resolve split-horizon issues?(Choose two.)
A. Disable Inverse ARP.
B. Create a full-mesh topology.
C. Develop multipoint subinterfaces.
D. Configure point-to-point subinterfaces.
E. Remove the broadcast keyword from the frame-relay map command.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation/Reference:
IP split horizon checking is disabled by default for Frame Relay encapsulation to allow routing updates to go in and out of the same interface. An exception is the Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing.
QUESTION 13
After the network has converged, what type of messaging, if any, occurs between R3 and R4?
A. No messages are exchanged.
B. Hellos are sent every 10 seconds.
C. The full database from each router is sent every 30 seconds.
D. The routing table from each router is sent every 60 seconds.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
HELLO messages are used to maintain adjacent neighbors so even when the network is converged, hellos are still exchanged. On broadcast and point-to-point links, the default is 10 seconds, on NBMA the.
QUESTION 14
Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on a router? (Choose two.)
Router(config)# router ospf 1
A. All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID.
B. Only one process number can be used on the same router.
C. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes
D. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.
E. Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation/Reference:
The areas can be any number from 0 to 4.2 billion and 1 to 65,535 for the Process ID. The process ID is the ID of the OSPF process to which the interface belongs. The process ID is local to the rout.
QUESTION 15
Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? 200-105 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
B. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.
C. Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.
D. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
E. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.
F. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.
G. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.
Correct Answer: BG
Explanation/Reference:
When reading (or being lectured about) all the glorious details of dynamic routing protocols, it\’s hard not to come away with the impression that dynamic routing is always better than static routing.
QUESTION 16
Which statement about access lists that are applied to an interface is true?
A. You can place as many access lists as you want on any interface.
B. You can apply only one access list on any interface.
C. You can configure one access list, per direction, per Layer 3 protocol.
D. You can apply multiple access lists with the same protocol or in different directions.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.
The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding.
B. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch.
C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.
D. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media.
E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state.
F. This switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.
Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation/Reference:
From the output, we see that all ports are in Designated role (forwarding state) -andgt; A and E are correct.
The command andquot;show spanning-tree vlan 30 only shows us information about V.
QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.
A technician pastes the configurations in the exhibit into the two new routers shown. Otherwise, the routers are configured with their default configurations. A ping from Host1 to Host2 fails, but the technician is able to ping the S0/0 interface of R2 from Host1. The configurations of the hosts have been verified as correct. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The serial cable on R1 needs to be replaced.
B. The interfaces on R2 are not configured properly.
C. R1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network.
D. The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks.
E. The ip subnet-zero command must be configured on both routers.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
Whenever a node needs to send data to another node on a network, it must first know where to send it. If the node cannot directly connect to the destination node, it has to send it via other nodes a.
QUESTION 19
What are three benefits of GLBP? 200-105 dumps (Choose three.)
A. GLBP supports up to eight virtual forwarders per GLBP group.
B. GLBP supports clear text and MD5 password authentication between GLBP group members.
C. GLBP is an open source standardized protocol that can be used with multiple vendors.
D. GLBP supports up to 1024 virtual routers.
E. GLBP can load share traffic across a maximum of four routers.
F. GLBP elects two AVGs and two standby AVGs for redundancy.
Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation/Reference:
Load Sharing You can configure GLBP in such a way that traffic from LAN clients can be shared by multiple routers.
QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.
What commands must be configured on the 2950 switch and the router to allow communication between host 1 and host 2? (Choose two.)
A. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config-if)# no shut down
B. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# no shut down Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.1Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10 Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0
Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.2 Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 20 Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0
C. Router(config)# router eigrp 100 Router(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 Router(config-router)# network 192.168.20.0
D. Switch1(config)# vlan database Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp domain XYZ Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp server
E. Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
F. Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1 Switch1(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation/Reference:
The two answers B and E list all the commands needed to configure interVLAN routing. Please notice that Cisco switch 2950, 2960 only support dot1Q trunking so we don\’t need to specify which t.
QUESTION 21
Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? (Choose two.)
A. Router(config)# router ospf 0
B. Router(config)# router ospf 1
C. Router(config)# router ospf area 0
D. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0
E. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
F. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation/Reference:
In the router ospf
Command, the ranges from 1 to 65535 so o is an invalid number – B is correct but A is not correct. To configure OSPF, we need a wildcard in the andquot;network” stat
QUESTION 22
Which statement is true, as relates to classful or classless routing?
A. Classful routing protocols send the subnet mask in routing updates.
B. RIPv1 and OSPF are classless routing protocols.
C. Automatic summarization at classful boundaries can cause problems on discontiguous subnets.
D. EIGRP and OSPF are classful routing protocols and summarize routes by default.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
RIPv1, RIPv2, IGRP, and EIGRP all auto-summarize classful boundaries by default (OSPF do
QUESTION 23
What does a router do if it has no EIGRP feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route to that destination network is in active status?
A. It routes all traffic that is addressed to the destination network to the interface indicated in the routing table.
B. It sends a copy of its neighbor table to all adjacent routers.
C. It sends a multicast query packet to all adjacent neighbors requesting available routing paths to the destination network.
D. It broadcasts Hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
Introduction to EIGRP Reference:
Feasible Successors
A destination entry is moved from the topo
QUESTION 24
Which statement about named ACLs is true?
A. They support standard and extended ACLs.
B. They are used to filter usernames and passwords for Telnet and SSH.
C. They are used to filter Layer 7 traffic.
D. They support standard ACLs only.
E. They are used to rate limit traffic destined to targeted networks.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
Named Access Control Lists (ACLs) allows standard and extended ACLs to be given names instead of numbers. Unlike in numbered Access Control Lists (ACLs), we can edit Named Access Control Lists. Anoth
QUESTION 25
What does the frame-relay interface-dlci command configure?
A. local DLCI on the subinterface
B. remote DLCI on the main interface
C. remote DCLI on the subinterface
D. local DLCI on the main interface
Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
To assign a data-link connection identifier (DLCI) to a specified Frame Relay subinterface on t
QUESTION 26
What is the result of issuing the frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.2 202 broadcast command?
A. defines the destination IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
B. defines the source IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
C. defines the DLCI on which packets from the 192.168.1.2 IP address are received
D. defines the DLCI that is used for all packets that are sent to the 192.168.1.2 IP address
Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
Frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.2 202 command statically defines a mapping between a network layer address and a DLCI. The broadcast option allows multicast and broadcast packets to flow across the link 200-105 dumps
QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.
Router edge-1 is unable to establish OSPF neighbor adjacency with router ISP-1. Which two configuration changes can you make on edge-1 to allow the two routers to establish adjacency? (Choose two.)
A. Set the subnet mask on edge-1 to 255 255.255.252.
B. Reduce the MTU on edge-1 to 1514.
C. Set the OSPF cost on edge-1 to 1522.
D. Reduce the MTU on edge-1 to 1500.
E. Configure the ip ospf mtu-ignore command on the edge-1 Gi0/0 interface.
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A situation can occur where the interface MTU is at a high value, for example 9000, while the real value of the size of packets that can be forwarded over this interface is 1500.
QUESTION 28
What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 16
D. unlimited
Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
4 is the default number of routes that OSPF will include in routing table if more than 4 equal cost routes exist for the same subnet. However, OSPF can include up to 16 equal cost routes in the routi
QUESTION 29
Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?
A. hop count
B. administrative distance
C. link bandwidth
D. link delay
E. link cost
Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
What Is Administrative Distance?
Administrative distance is the feature that routers use in order to s
QUESTION 30
What are two characteristics of a switch that is configured as a VTP client? 200-105 dumps (Choose two.)
A. If a switch that is configured to operate in client mode cannot access a VTP server, then the switch reverts totransparent mode.
B. On switches that are configured to operate in client mode, VLANs can be created, deleted, or renamed locally.
C. The local VLAN configuration is updated only when an update that has a higher configuration revision number is received.
D. VTP advertisements are not forwarded to neighboring switches that are configured in VTP transparent mode.
E. VTP client is the default VTP mode.
F. When switches in VTP client mode are rebooted, they send a VTP advertisement request to the VTP servers.
Correct Answer: CF
Explanation/Reference:
VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP)
VTP Modes Server Mode Once VTP is configured on a Cisco switch, the default mode used is Server Mode. In any given V
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